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In your view, what was/is the core theme of the Old Testament?

Speak Light

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I believe in Yahashua, The Anointing, the son of God, who laid down his flesh for the atonement of sin .

I do see in Hebrew manuscripts that his coming is prophesied in the old testament.

The new testament explains concerning how that the Anointing in Yahashua is the eternal Spirit of God

1Pe 1:10 Of which salvation the prophets have enquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: :11 Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of The Anointing which was IN them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of The Anointing and the glory that should follow.

Believing that the eternal Spirit of God was also IN Yahashua who was conceived by the Holy Spirit of the Father, that this Spirit is truly the very Spirit of The Anointing, that was also the same Spirit IN the prophets of the Old Testament. - The one Spirit of God.

1Pe 1:2 { Peter says, of himself - he, Peter is, Elected according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, by sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Yahashua, The Anointing:

Heb 9:14 explains that is -- the blood of The Anointing, who by the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God,

To me, this means that the fullness of the Holy Spirit of God that was in Yahashua was very his own deity and his very own Spirit itself, his own identity.

Rom 8:10 And if The Anointing be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

Some believers see differently and do not believe that this faith is expressed in scripture and some believers simply honestly do not believe that The Anointing Sprit and deity of Yahashua is the Holy Spirit of God nor believe that the One Eternal Holy Spirit in him was sanctified unto obedience and sprinkled as the shed blood of the Holy Spirit.

Meaning = sanctification of the Spirit , unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Yahashua, The Anointing:

Yahashua paid the price and we are bought with a price
He was perfect, sinless.

I do not believe the scriptures are saying that the Eternal Spirit needed to be sanctified nor needed to become obedient and needed cleaning nor was imperfect but that a Morph of God called Yahashua was perfect and Holy because of the Holy Spirit in him

Col 2:9 For in him inhabited all the fulness of the Divinity physically.

He provided the Perfect and Holy Sacrifice for the sin of man.
 

Speak Light

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I really enjoyed reading the posts of everyone and I completely understand exactly what you are saying,

Have you ever noticed that the Old testament always shows Yahwhea giving mankind, his creation, a choice. Yahwhea never physically takes control of anyone and forces or uses brute programming to physically force individuals to behave a specific commandment.

We even see this in the beginning with Adam and his wife, they were given free will to choose to obey or disobey,

Even Yahashua, The Anointing, was given free will to make the choice to obey the calling of His Holy Spirit within him. Yahashua was even a little child who was following after the will of his father

Luk 2:46 explains that Yahahua as a child spent time in the temple, sitting in the midst of the teachers, both hearing them, and asking them questions.

The manuscripts however NEVER say that - - :49 Yahashua said - that he must be about his Father's business ?

This is completely untruthful for the translators to change this passage, the word business is nowhere in this verse.

HERE IS THE ORIGINAL MANUSCRIPT

Luk 2:49 και AND - ειπεν SAYING - προς UNTO - αυτους THEM - τι WHY - οτι THAT - εζητειτε YOU SEEK - με ME,, - ουκ NOT - ηδειτε YOU KNOW - οτι THAT - εν IN τοις WHICH - του THE - πατρος FATHER - μου I - δει SHOULD - ειναι BE - με ME


Luk 2:49 AND SAYING UNTO THEM, WHY THAT YOU SEEK ME, NOT YOU KNOW THAT IN WHICH FATHER I SHOULD BE ME

The manuscripts say absolutely nothing whatsoever about his fathers business. Why did the translators untruthfully alter this ?

Furthermore we see how that in Php Chapter 2 - Yahashua is obedient even to the end

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.




The manuscripts say

Php 2:5 Τουτο THIS - γαρ FOR - φρονεισθω REGARD - εν IN - υμιν YOURSELVES - ο WHOM - και ALSO - εν IN - χριστω ANOINTING - ησους YAHOSHUA.

REGARD WHAT ?

REGARD THE ABOVE LISTED VIRTUES IN YOURSELVES = YOURSELVES - WHOM ARE IN YAHSHUA

REGARD Vs. :2 having the same love, of one accord, one mind.
REGARD Vs. :3 esteeming others better than ourselves.
REGARD Vs. :4 Looking not on our own things, but also look on the things of others.

YAHASHUA

:6 ος WHO - εν IN - μορφη MORPH - θεου GOD - υπαρχων EXISTED - ουχ NOT - αρπαγμον TAKING - ηγησατο JUDGMENT - το TO - ειναι BE - ισα EQUALLY - θεω GOD

:7 αλλ BUT - εαυτον HIMSELF - εκενωσεν EMPTY / VOID - μορφην MORPH OF - δουλου A SERVANT - λαβων TAKING - εν IN - ομοιωματι THE LIKENESS - ανθρωπων OF MANKIND - γενομενος HE BECAME


MEANING

Php 2:1 we are to be in consolation in THE ANOINTING

:2 have the same love, of one accord, one mind.
:3 esteem others better than ourselves.
:4 Look not our own things, but also look on the things of others.

:5 THIS FOR REGARD IN YOURSELVES WHOM ALSO IN THE ANOINTING YAHASHUA.

:6 WHO IN THE MORPH OF GOD, EXISTED NOT TAKING JUDGMENT TO BE EQUALLY GOD.

:7 BUT HIMSELF, EMPTY / VOID MORPH OF A SERVANT, RECEIVING IN THE LIKENESS OF MANKIND, HE BECAME.

Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.


In conclusion, we see the wonderful message that from the Old Testament to the New Testament - God always gives us a choice to decide and God entered into his creation as a Son of man and fulfilled the perfect example of obedience which what he was trying to show from the beginning.
 
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Speak Light

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Thank you for replying to me.

Have you ever noticed Psa 81:4

:4 For this “ was “ a statute for Israel, and a law of the God of Jacob.

Here,, the word “ was “ is in italics

The Translators are slipping in and inserting into the Bible = a message that imposes previous past tense interpolation into a sentence that does not exist. Why are doing this ?

I find evidence that this is done throughout the entire Translation of the Bible in order to randomly and inconsistently create a deceptive impression to propagate the idea that it is the “ Italics “ that are explaining the original message - when in fact it is the “ Italics “ that are explaining the way in which the Translators rendered the passage in their own words.

AND TO DECEIVE THE READER INTO CONCENTRATING ONLY UPON THE “ italics “…………

………. themselves -
as the only or the MAIN method in which translation was explained, by the adding and inserting of additional words.

In other words, the thousands of added and additional inserted words that are NOT in “ italics “ are inserted and the readers do not know where or how they relate to the original unless they study the original manuscript and learn Hebrew and Greek under the conditions of the Translators.

And these Greek and Grammar rules are not consistent or reliable.
Can you imagine what narratives and ideas can be altered and changed in the New Testament by picking and choosing where to INSERT and add Italics and were to add / insert words that are not in Italics.

I was not intending to copy Php 2:5 from any particular Translation, but rather take the original Greek for exactly what it says.
My faith in God’s word compels me to study, learn and understand the original message of the manuscript and take God’s word for exactly what it says.

I believe that many or most people today would find comfort taking the opposite approach, by taking all of the Translations that exist today and combining them all together and picking and choosing from all translations what they like and ignoring what they dislike, to constitute their faith and denominational path.

if we look at all of the translations of Php 2:5 that exist today and combine them all together this is the translation of them all together, here below.

= Php 2:5 In your relationships with one another, among yourselves, let the same disposition be made, you must make your own attitudes to have the same attitudes and same mindsets in you and reason in your souls that same mindset which was also in the Messiah Christ Jesus.

This is a very different message when reading the simple 10 words in the original manuscript

Php 2:5 Τουτο THIS - γαρ FOR - φρονεισθω REGARD - εν IN - υμιν YOURSELVES - ο WHOM - και ALSO - εν IN - χριστω ANOINTING - ησους YEHOSHUA.

For example, there is absolutely mentioned - nothing about the words “ LET or ALLOW or PERMIT “ and the words “ relationship with / between one another “ also the words “ make your own / reason in your souls “ and Messiah.

This is what the translators are adding and inserting upon the Greek text and have nothing to do with the original manuscript.
I am simply rendering the Greek or Hebrew script as it is transmitted - as original manuscript.

Here is the total sum of all Translations of Php 2: 6 – 7 combined all into one.

6 - Who Although from the beginning, His being had the very nature God, He did not consider or reckon His treasure and prize of His being sharing an equality with God, something to be used, to cling to and grasp for his own advantage

7 - Rather, He emptied Himself and gave up his divine privilege by assuming the form made of himself as nothing and by taking the humble position in habit and very nature of a servant and slave and a bond-servant, he chose to share His being as it was made into a human mortal man in the form of the child’ s likeness in His external form.

But the Original Manuscripts are saying something very different. - I do not wish to lengthen this post by repeating again what I have already posted above for exactly what manuscripts say for Php 2: 6 – 7

But the very important matter, I honestly believe is the alteration and intentional, deliberate and calculated changing here in verse : 5 - to change, alter and mold the Bible to fit and conform into a pre supposed faith system and narrative.
again - this is exactly word for word from the Greek text

:5 THIS FOR REGARD IN YOURSELVES WHOM ALSO IN THE ANOINTING YEHOSHUA.

Please notice that the translations insert the past tense word “ WAS “ that was inserted / added by the translators

KJV - Php 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which WAS also in Christ Jesus:

Please notice how the KJV will add / insert thousands upon thousands words in italics, to help the reader better understand the OBJECTIVES, INTENTIONS and PURPOSES of passage.

For example - Luk 5:10 And sowasalso James,

was “ is in italics - with the word = ALSO, - in the STRONGS CONCORDANCE is represented by the # G2532 καί

Kai - kahee in Greek always ONLY means = and, also, even, so, too ….. there is no “ WAS “ ALSO - in the original

but where do we draw the line between what in italics are actually neutral in truly helping readers to understand, AND WHAT WORDS ARE ADDED THAT ARE NOT in italics are inserted to add and weave a narrative to ADAPT a conformational arrangement : an assembling into a gradient conformation that is supposed molded, conformed and forced into additional added rendering, superimposed, implied or masquerading as the supposed authors hypothetical intent, but not found in the original message. ? ?

The Greek word “ WAS “ appears roughly 900 total times in the manuscript itself

and appears a total of “
1357 “ total times in the KJV

This means that there are roughly -
450 to 550 instances where the wordWASis either inserted - in italics or inserted WITHOUT italics - to when the translators feel or sense inspiration to add this word.

When the authors intended to insert the word “ WAS “ they would have used = was G2258 ἦν = pronounced as = ane

Mat 26:71 was G2258 ἦν - also και - G2532 - with him
Mat_2:15 And G2532 και - was G2258 ἦν
Mat_3:4 was G2258 ἦν - locusts - and G2532 και - honey


Mat_12:10 And G2532 και there was G2258 ἦν

Mat_12:40 was G2258 ἦν three days And G2532 και

Mar_1:13 And G2532 και he was G2258 ἦν


Verse :5 says - THIS FOR REGARD IN YOURSELVES WHOM ALSO IN THE ANOINTING YEHOSHUA.
the past tense word “ WAS “ and “ LET “ were inserted / added by the translators
KJV - Php 2:5 LET this mind be in you, which WAS also in Christ Jesus:

Notice the verse below

Mat 10:4 Simon the Canaanite, and Judas Iscariot, ..... who - ο also - και betrayed him

Mat 10:4 σιμων ο κανανιτης και ιουδας ισκαριωτης ( ( who - ο also - και ) ) παραδους αυτον

Just exactly as it is in Php 2:5

REGARD - εν IN - υμιν YOURSELVES - ( ( ο WHOM - και ALSO ) ) - εν IN - χριστω ANOINTING - ησους YEHOSHUA.

AND BELOW ARE A FEW EXAMPLES WHERE THAT IN THE CONCORDANCE the word - WHOM
G2258 ἦν = pronounced as = ane IS COMPLETELY MISSING WHEN IT SHOULD BE IN THE CONCORDANCE.


2Co 1:22 Who hath also sealed G4972 G2532 - missing the lexical # G2258 ἦν WHO


2Co 5:5 G2316 who also hath given - missing the lexical # G2258 ἦν WHO

Col 1:8 WHO G3588 ALSO G2532 και - missing the lexical # G2258 ἦν WHO

Rev 1:9 who also G2532 - missing the lexical # G2258 ἦν WHO


The fact is, the entire Translation is a scattered inconsistent random adding and inserting of thousands of words

And the concordance that is supposed to represent and support the KJV,, is not only not matching up with the KJV translation but the concordance is totally misrepresenting the original manuscript in many places.

This is amazing because - the concordance was invented and created to prop up the translation but it does not even represent the translation in many, many passages, and this is very noticeable and obvious where the Translators have altered the message by adding and removing words

Could you please help me to understand why the translators would be inserting words instead of translating as it is
THIS FOR REGARD IN YOURSELVES WHOM ALSO IN THE ANOINTING YEHOSHUA.

why create an alternative message that does not exist.
 

Speak Light

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I actually made a slight error in my lost post


The Greek word " WAS " - G2258 ἦν = pronounced as = ane

Verse :5 says - THIS FOR REGARD IN YOURSELVES WHOM ALSO IN THE ANOINTING YEHOSHUA.

i was demonstrating that the word " WAS " is not in the manuscripts but was inserted
i was mixing up the Greek word whom - ο with the Greek word - " WAS " - G2258 ἦν

I correct this mix up here below


the past tense word “ WAS “ and the word “ LET “ were inserted / added by the translators
KJV - Php 2:5 LET this mind be in you, which WAS also in Christ Jesus:

Notice the verse below


Mat 10:4 Simon the Canaanite, and Judas Iscariot, ..... whom - ο also - και betrayed him

Mat 10:4 σιμων ο κανανιτης και ιουδας ισκαριωτης ( ( who - ο also - και ) ) παραδους αυτον

Just exactly as it is in
Php 2:5

REGARD - εν IN - υμιν YOURSELVES - ( ( ο WHOM - και ALSO ) ) - εν IN - χριστω ANOINTING - ησους YEHOSHUA.

AND BELOW ARE A FEW EXAMPLES WHERE THAT IN THE CONCORDANCE the word - WHOM
# G3588 - ο WHOM is COMPLETELY MISSING, WHEN IT SHOULD BE IN THE CONCORDANCE.

The Translators did not even bother to even record the word - ( ο WHOM in the lexicon, and the lexicon is missing thousands of words and are REPLACING the words to match what the Translators have,
instead of what is in the manuscript.


2Co 1:22 Who hath also sealed G4972 G2532 - missing the lexical # G3588 - ο WHOM
2Co 5:5 G2316 who also hath given - missing the lexical # G3588 - ο WHOM
Col 1:8 WHO G3739 ALSO G2532 και - missing the lexical # G3588 - ο WHOM
Rev 1:9 who also G2532 - missing the lexical # G3588 - ο WHOM

Regarding using the name YAHASHUA - there is no doubt that you are absolutely correct.

however, the name JESUS is not in any manuscripts either - the original Greek is Hesus with no " J "


or iESUS - there is no " J " in Greek

If we are going to call on the name of Jesus , why not pronounce the name just like we pronounce Joshua with no J

Yeshua, Yahshua or Yahashua or Joshua - i do this because Y E H WHEA is not Y A H WHEA

Jesus means YAH SAVIOR so I call on the name of the Lord as he is pronounced before the Trinitarians began manipulating anything .

You can call him what you will, God bless you always
 

Willy

Pro Poster
God is light.

Light is made up of three primary colors.

Each is light.

All are light.

All secondary colors are a combination of the three primes.
 

Speak Light

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I was happy to see your website link, I did read most of the page and will return again to read the entirety.

thank you

The Bible is certain to reveal that God is truly light. Yet this light is not visible to our senses by seeing though human eyes.
I believe that Yeshua who was in the beginning God and WITH God is audible word and the expression of how we perceive the invisible Spirit Holy .

He is the word and the very light of God seen visible and perceived by creation. I do not hold to the theory or suggestion that Yeshua is another Person of God whom is Co - Equal, Co - Eternal and Co - omnipresent - as a separate, distinct second or third Person of God.

But that he is the same person of the one God, his identity and deity and very spirit is the Spirit Holy Anointing and the word of the Father himself manifested / morphed / expressed into flesh.
 
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CoreIssue

Administrator
Staff member
Read carefully. One Lord, three men who answer together as one. And remember, Angel means messenger as well as a type of being. In the OT the second person of the Trinity is also called the angel of God.

During the six days of creation God did not identify himself as I but we. When Jesus went on the mount he became glorified in the Holy Spirit dove descended on him as the father in heaven.



 

Speak Light

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Wow, thanks so very much for taking you valuable time to reply to me. :tongueout:

I always loved reading the Bible history about how that God appeared to Abraham in the morph of a man.

It is true that God has appeared to many of his servants, morphing himself / FORMING HIMSELF / as a man.

The Spirit of God has MORPHED and changed into the body of a man, appearing to Jacob, Gideon - and also in Exo 24:9 God appeared to Moses, and Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and also to seventy of the elders of Israel, as it were the body of heaven

Also, appearing to Adam and Eve walking and moving through the garden as they heard him moving and speaking in an audible perceivable sound that they could hear with their ears.

Eze 37:1 The hand of the LORD was upon Ezekiel, he felt the HAND OF GOD and was carried out in the spirit of the LORD - The Lord is here also physically and audibly speaking to Ezekiel

Jer 1:4 Then the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah, audibly speaking to Jeremiah


:9 Then the LORD put forth his hand, and physically touched his mouth.

In Exodus, God appeared in a burning bush, as a pillar of cloud by day, and as a pillar of fire by night.

God appeared as a "whisper" to Elijah and in visions to other prophets.

The Lord appeared to King Solomon in a dream,


My point is to present the FACTS that I always try to show FACTS my Trinitarian Friends is that ( YES } we see God manifesting himself as a man and also in many, many other manners in the Old Testament

Yes - the Bible clarifies that in " diverse manners " God has manifested himself
Heb 1:1 God, who at various times and in diverse manners spoke in time past unto the fathers by the prophets.

But this is not the APPEARING OF GOD’S ONLY BORN SON

This is not in any way, any form of representing anything to do with the Trinity - all of these
" diverse manners " where God has manifested himself and appeared and manifested and spoken in the Old Testament

these diverse manners of revealing and manifesting his INVISIBLE SPIRIT are not multiple persons

GOD IS NEVER CALLED A PERSON and JESUS ALSO, IS NEVER CALLED A PERSON IN THE MANUSCRIPTS.

Trinitarians have inserted the word " person " into their translations by changing the meaning of words and adding and inserting words and also have changed the narrative of words and sentences.

I CAN AND PROVE THIS VERY EASILY - AND I BELEIVE I ALREADY HAVE IN MY PREVIOUS POST

his invisible spirit has not been SEEN therefore in diverse manners God has manifested and spoken to his creation / mankind.

Heb 1:1 God, who at sundry times “ and in diverse manners “ spoke in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

:2 Hath IN THESE LAST DAYS spoken unto us by Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

:3 Yahashua } ……. Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his CONFIDENCE

NOT PERSON. I ASK YOU TO ACCEPT MY FRIENDLY CHALENGE - show from the Greek manuscripts a single instance where the Greek word " person " is applied to God or Jesus. I do not believe that you can :tiphat:

Please remember - the word Person - is never used in the manuscripts to describe God nor his Son.

This is a Trinitarian deception. Yahashua is not the Image of the fathers “ Person “ - in the manuscripts. This Greek word means confidence…

The Bible clarifies that the Son Of God is another one of the many, many diverse manners - ONE OF THE MANY, MANY WAYS – I n which God has manifested or “ MORPHED “ himself – revealing / manifesting himself to mankind.

However, in these last days he has spoken unto us - by Son,
The son did not exist until he was begotten / born of God.

In Php 2:6 – 7 the Greek word / MORPH - μορφή - morphē

morph is expressly used in the manuscripts to explain exactly who Yahashua is - in his relationship with God - and as existing as - the MORPH of the Father.

Again, in Mar 16:12 the same exact Greek word / MORPH - μορφή - morphē morph is used.

:12 After the { Resurrection } he appeared in another μορφή - morphē morph unto two of them, as they walked, and went into the country.

μορφή - morphē morph / mor-fay' - Meaning = through the idea of adjustment of parts); shape; - form / morph.

Yahashua existed on earth - IN - the morph of God - and after he raised himself from the dead Yahashua AGAIN CHANGED HIS APPEARANCE AND APPEARED IN ANOTHER

ΜΟΡΦΉ - MORPH UNTO TWO BELIEVERS, AS THEY WALKED, AND WENT INTO THE COUNTRY.

AND THEN HE - AGAIN - CHANGED BACK INTO HIS ORIGINAL ΜΟΡΦΉ - MORPH AT THE END OF THEIR JOURNEY - AS THEY SAT DOWN TOGETHER TO EAT A MEAL - AND THEN DISAPPEARED / VANISHED BEFORE THEIR EYES .

The Greek word μορφή - morphē


IN CONCLUSION

OF COURSE WHEN AN INVISIBLE / UNSEEN SPIRIT IS EMPLOYING AND USING A HUMAN BODY TO APPEAR AND MANIFEST VISIBLY - TO SPEAK TO HIS SERVANTS

THIS HUMAN MORPH / MANIFESTATION IS THE SAME GOD - but is a MORPH / OF GOD AND THEY TOGETHER ARE PLURALLY APPEARING VISIBLE AND SEEN AND TRANSPARENT, THE INVISIBLE HOLY SPIRIT HAS A MESSAGE OR PURPOSE FOR THE ONE HE APPEARS TO AND - the visible manifestation itself will use PLURAL TERMINOLOGY to make it clear and understandable concerning what God is doing.

OF COURSE - God is going to be honest and explain that he is invisible and can not be seen but will go ahead and use a descriptive language that makes use of employing PLURAL words to explain exactly what he is doing.
God is invisible - he appears in bodily form and this becomes an actionable plural attribute of God's work - in what God is doing by using an EXTERNAL visible human body,

This is a PLURAL MANIFESTED FORM / MORPH ACTIONS - NOT PLURAL PERSONS OF GOD

The human messenger claiming to be God will be a lesser, lower and emptied VOID LESSER LOWER LESS POWERFUL morph / form and manifestation of the INVISIBLE SPIRIT of God - this manifestation - will still be God, because Gods HOLY SPIRIT is in the manifestation and God is using a various manners and manifestations OR a human form to make himself seen, visible and appear to humans that would never be able to see him.

And the fact remains that none of the appearances of God manifesting himself are sons of God they are MORPHS OF GOD / MANIFESTATIONS - these manifestations appear as God - as pillar of fire - as cloud - as fire on a mountain - as hands - as various form of bodies-


as the appearing of the backside of a man’s body appearing to Moses

as the appearing of a physical literal audibly heard voice speaking

as the appearing of a sudden wind blowing

None of these were anything to do with the only born son of God

God :2 Hath IN THESE LAST DAYS spoken unto us by Son, - Not in the Old Testament.

The Son is not Co - Eternal, not Co - Equal and not Co- omnipresent or second Person of a Godhead
He is Eternal and Equal and Omnipresent
because he came out of God as the word. An attribute of God’s spirit conceived himself in the morph of a son.

Not as a second person of God - but as the word of God - morphed into flesh.

Heb 11:3 Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God

God does not want humans to go to heaven and return back to earth for the 1000 year reign - while living in his spirit world of the unseen

- he wants us to go to heaven to retain our earthly bodies - and keep our earthly human senses and visibly see and hear him, the father - when we look upon Yahashua
when we look upon Yahashua - we are looking upon the Father with the fullness of The Holy Spirit dwelling in him - whereby we would never be able to see or hear the father with human senses.

The Father is in the Son and the Son is in the Father

I believe that I have proven and can continue to prove that the Translators have altered the Bible by adding and removing and changing words - to insert the entirety of the Trinitarian Faith System and all that Trinitarianism exists as in faith, morals and principles.
 
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Speak Light

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I intended to reply sooner, and will provide the mistranslated passages that have been changed to insert the Trinity

But firstly


I would like to ask you just a question if you would like to answer It would really be appreciated.

I have asked this question to every single Trinitarian that I have opportunity to ask and I have never received an answer.
I know that - Trinitarians wholly affirm that God is Three Different, Distinct, Separated Divine Persons who are “ ALL THREE “ Eternally - ETERNALLY - CO- Equal and Eternally CO – Eternal and yet - Eternally ONE SINGLE GOD. –


As 3 separate persons or beings of God.

My question, is If Jesus is “ AT “ or “ ON “ the right HAND of God , where did he exist before he was located / or placed to be there ? “

Because that the Trinitarian Bible Translation clearly states says concerning Jesus

Mat 22:44 -------- Sit thou ON my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
Mar 12:36 -------- Sit thou ON my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Act 2:34 -------- Sit thou ON my right hand, Until I make thy foes thy footstool.

HERE, WE SEE in the Trinitarian Translation that Jesus, the son, is not previously or formerly sitting / dwelling ON the right hand of God…

God is saying of Jesus - SIT HERE UNTIL THIS TIME COMES

If God is commanding Jesus to sit ON his right hand - this means that Jesus was not formally or previously sitting there - or God would not have cause or reason to command Jesus to relocate and then place him there - ON HIS RIGHT HAND.

JESUS IS BEING ASKED TO BE RE - POSITIONED - RE LOCATED - TO SIT
AT ANOTHER LOCATION

- and - this place, “ ON or AT the right hand of God “ AND this is not where God intends Jesus to sit for eternity or as a permanent location.

Jesus is only to be there UNTIL a certain time passes. UNTIL A CERTAIN TIME EXPIRES -

Mar 12:36 -------- Sit thou ON my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Jesus is relocated to a different seat or place and he is told that he will be seated or present there –
O N L Y - until a specific duration of time -
until a specific action is completed. Until that his enemies are a footstool.

This means that Jesus was not always there and that he will not always be there / Jesus is being relocated, passing from one location and moving to another location - a location where he was not previously - and he will some day be REMOVED and TAKEN OUT, AWAY from this location AT / ON the RIGHT HAND OF GOD - once the time has expired… … … … … … ..

I simply cannot obtain an answer from the Trinitarian believer… ..

THE QUESTION IS

" why would Jesus have to LOWER Himself and take on the role or morph or form of a MAN or LOWER HIMSELF to be a servant of God - IF THAT WAS WHAT or who HE ALREADY always WAS and always will be ?

In other words Where do Trinitarians believe that Jesus existed before he was to sit at the right hand of God and where do Trinitarians believe that Jesus will sit or exist after his enemies are a footstool ?

If Jesus was moved to sit at the right hand of God - until his enemies were a footstool,
Why - WHY was he to sit there if that is where he already was. And where do Trinitarians believe or claim that he will he sit or exist after his enemies are a footstool
? -

Meaning = if he was to sit at the right hand - until - such and such a time. Why was he asked to sit there, if Trinitarians claim that this is where he always existed. ?

Trinitarians teach that Yahashua is
Co Eternal - and Co Equal - and Co Omnipresent second person who is on the right hand of the throne of the father.

Where do Trinitarians believe from their Translation that Jesus existed before he was asked to sit at the right hand of God
and where do Trinitarians believe that Jesus will sit or exist after his enemies are a footstool ?

why would Jesus have to LOWER Himself and take on the role or morph or form of a MAN or LOWER HIMSELF to be CHANGED and ALTERED CHANGING HIS STATUS ONTO EXISTING AS a servant of God -

IF THAT WAS WHAT or who HE ALREADY WAS AND ALWAYS WILL BE IN THE TRINITARIAN TRANSLATION ?


Where and what do Trinitarians believe " from their Translation " that Jesus existed before he was asked to sit at the right hand of God ?
 
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CoreIssue

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You still are only giving your opinion. You have yet to name the manuscripts you are using or the linguists that support you.
 

CoreIssue

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The KJV Old Testament Hebrew Lexicon


Strong's Number: 0430
Original WordWord Origin
~yhlaplural of (0433)
Transliterated WordTDNT Entry
'elohiymTWOT - 93c
Phonetic SpellingParts of Speech
el-o-heem' Noun Masculine
Definition

  1. (plural intensive - singular meaning)
    1. god, goddess
    2. godlike one
    3. works or special possessions of God
    4. the (true) God
    5. God

 

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are you saying that - this Is opinion ? my opinion is that the Trinitarian Translations says that

Heb 10:12 Jesus " sat down AT the right hand of God," after that he had "offered for all time one sacrifice for sins."

I was hoping that you could take some credence in accepting and recognize the statements made in my question

as all, entirely based upon exactly what the Trinitarian Translation says, word for word.

Based upon the Trinitarian Translation of the Bible

Trinitarians believe that there is One God - in three persons

The three Persons are co-equal and co-eternal, one in essence, nature, power, action, and will.

would you not agree that

Trinitarians even have the word " PERSON " describing the Father, in their very translation.
their very translations says that Jesus thought it NOT robbery to be equal with God the Father,

and
The Trinitarian Translation says " that Jesus is being told by the Father to sit ON or AT his right hand. "

Would you please explain how can you claim that my opinion is that The Trinitarian Translation places contradiction within the faith by placing Jesus eternally / forever sitting at the Right Hand of God

IN the Trinity doctrine


The Trinity demands that “right hand” means Trinity as co-equal and co-eternal,

one in equality of power, Co - Eternal When the translation translates that Jesus Christ sits AT the right hand of the Father, it is affirming that he has received and obtained EQUAL STATUS to the Father within the GODHEAD and This is the Trinity !

My question was not to express my opinion.

I was asking trinitarians, Was Jesus sitting at the Right hand before the New Testament or was he not
that was my question, based solely upon on the facts of what the Trinity doctrine teaches.

If he was not - this means that this Godhead and Trinity did not exist in the Old testament.

Why is God asking Jesus to change his position and move himself to re position himself to receive something that he did not possess previously to be promoted to receiving authority and power.

Receiving equality with the Father ?
Receiving Eternal Status of Godhead with the Father ?
Receiving the same power with the Father ?


if he was not already CO ETERNAL and CO EQUAL

how is this second Person Co - Eternal ?
and Co - Equal.

Secondly

we see also - In the Trinity Doctrine - we see also

that Trinitarians have already been asked this exact type of a question but only asked this question in a very shallow superficial and manner of that of as if ignorantly questioning

A questioning of the Trinity doctrine that is only asking and questing on a vey surface, skin-deep. frivolous, foolish and silly method.

The Trinitarian response is always to reply, saying. that Jesus, the Son = was Co - Eternal and CO = Equal Persons with the Father from the very beginning of time - but then he came to earth and subordinated and lowered himself and humbled and lessened himself and changed or altered himself coming to earth to submit and serve the Fathers will.


But in the Godhead Trinity they also make the claim that Jesus was always submissive and always subordinate and of lower rank and second in command in the Godhead and that the Father permitted or allowed or gave him permission to participate in the creating of all.

Why then, suddenly Jesus is lowering himself and changing his status and attitude and changed, altered and becoming submissive, moving to a lower rank, second in command, becoming lesser than what he was and still acknowledging that he is EQUAL to GOD ?


The Trinitarian Jesus - thought it NOT robbery to be equal with God the Father,

Because this is what Trinitarians believe Jesus existed as previous to being altered, changed and lower and subservient and submissive - he had to change his form, alter, lower and modify himself.


Then how is Jesus Co - Equal and Co - Eternal if being seated at the right hand of the Father means exactly in concept and effect - the Godhead and Trinity

This is a contradiction because the Translation has been altered in many ways from what the original manuscript says

The Trinitarians literally have Jesus converting to the Trinitarianism doctrine.

As where before he was not a Trinitarian,

In the Translation, Jesus is literally converting and becoming a disciple of the Trinity faith whereas before he was not a Trinitarian.
 
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